I'm tyring myself in knots on this one, probably needlessly.
Shareholder A owns 100% of an S-Corp, which he sells to Shareholder B and receives a promissory note for the value of the shares. Shareholder B then sells half the stock back to the S-corp, which assumes liability for half of the note. A&B are related parties, and both are qualified S-corp shareholders (individuals).
Interest only is paid on the note to former Shareholder A, and it is all being paid directly by the S-Corp. Am I correct in treating the interest as being 1/2 deductible by the S-Corp and 1/2 being income to Shareholder B?
I'm thinking that this transaction doesn't invalidate the S-corp election, but that more or less nags me as well.
If anyone has suggestions I'd appreciate any and all input.
Shareholder A owns 100% of an S-Corp, which he sells to Shareholder B and receives a promissory note for the value of the shares. Shareholder B then sells half the stock back to the S-corp, which assumes liability for half of the note. A&B are related parties, and both are qualified S-corp shareholders (individuals).
Interest only is paid on the note to former Shareholder A, and it is all being paid directly by the S-Corp. Am I correct in treating the interest as being 1/2 deductible by the S-Corp and 1/2 being income to Shareholder B?
I'm thinking that this transaction doesn't invalidate the S-corp election, but that more or less nags me as well.
If anyone has suggestions I'd appreciate any and all input.
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