I have a question on this, as it involves one of my current taxpayers.
As I understand this, the original amount of the mortgage for acquisition debt can be relieved, but if the t/p refinanced and acquired equity to pay off other credit card debt, that portion can not be relieved. Is this correct?
So in this taxpayers case, and example:
Mortgage acquisition was $138,000, refinance in 2007 was $201,000, which is $63,000 equity and payoff credit cards and other loan debt.
If I understand this correctly, then the t/p would have to pay taxes on the $63,000 as none of that can be allocated to acquistion or improvement of the principal residence.
Would the insolvency form 982 still be available for the $63,000?
Current, today market facts would be that the property is worth FMV real estate value at approximately $125,000. Then 13,000 would be forgiven under mortgage relief, however, the $63,000 would be taxalbe. Would this amount be taxable as ordinary or capital gain? I am thinking ordinary, unless the t/p can use the form 982.
Thanks in advance for your thoughts and wisdom.
Sandy
As I understand this, the original amount of the mortgage for acquisition debt can be relieved, but if the t/p refinanced and acquired equity to pay off other credit card debt, that portion can not be relieved. Is this correct?
When calculating the amount of forgiven debt that is covered by this statutory exclusion, any debt not used to buy or improve the principal residence will continue to be considered as income to the foreclosed homeowner. This means that a careful analysis of the loan history and actual expenditures made by a debtor must be made before a foreclosure is permitted. Unfortunately, a byproduct of this legislation could well be a false sense of security for a homeowner facing foreclosure. The failure to act promptly could result in the unfortunate gut punch described above with tax liability on top of loss of the home.
Mortgage acquisition was $138,000, refinance in 2007 was $201,000, which is $63,000 equity and payoff credit cards and other loan debt.
If I understand this correctly, then the t/p would have to pay taxes on the $63,000 as none of that can be allocated to acquistion or improvement of the principal residence.
Would the insolvency form 982 still be available for the $63,000?
Current, today market facts would be that the property is worth FMV real estate value at approximately $125,000. Then 13,000 would be forgiven under mortgage relief, however, the $63,000 would be taxalbe. Would this amount be taxable as ordinary or capital gain? I am thinking ordinary, unless the t/p can use the form 982.
Thanks in advance for your thoughts and wisdom.
Sandy
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