I have a client whose one rental house was put in service in late 2004. The tenant vandlized it and had to be evicted. For the most of 2005, until December, the taxpayer made repairs to make the property again rentable. There is no rental income for 2005.
Would this be treated in the same manner as if it did have income or does it have to be rentable as when it's first put in service? Thanks for your time. HJ
Would this be treated in the same manner as if it did have income or does it have to be rentable as when it's first put in service? Thanks for your time. HJ
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